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QUESTION 1
How can a network administrator secure rest APIs?
A. They can have a general administrator login for multiple users to access that has command entries logged.
B. They can authenticate user sessions and provide the appropriate privilege level.
C. They can ensure that user sessions are authenticated using TACACS+ only.
D. They can allow read and write privileges to all users.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Pass4itsure Cisco 350-501 exam questions q2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true about what this AS filter accomplishes?
A. It filters incoming BGP update with any AS number starting with the digit 5 and ending with the digit 5,and this only in
an AS_PATH.
B. It filters incoming BGP update with any AS number matching “5.5”,but not 515,525.535 etc this only in an AS_SET.
C. It filters incoming BGP update with any AS number starting with the digit 5 and ending with the digit 5 and this only in
an AS_SET.
D. It allows any number with the statement “.*”and this only in an AS_PATH.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A customer of an ISP requests support to setup a BGP routing policy. Which BGP attribute should be configured to
choose specific BGP speakers as preferred points for the customer AS?
A. lowest multi-exit discriminator
B. highest local preference outbound
C. lowest local preference inbound
D. highest local preference inbound
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Pass4itsure Cisco 350-501 exam questions q4
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is preparing to implement link aggregation configuration. Which statement about this
configuration is true?
A. The switch port negotiates an EtherChannel if it receives LACP packets from a connected peer running passive
mode.
B. The switch port actively sends packets to negotiate an EtherChannel using PAgP.
C. The switch port passively negotiates an EtherChannel if it receives PAgP packets from a connected peer.
D. The switch port accepts LACP and PAgP packets from a connected peer and negotiate an EtherChannel using the
common EtherChannel mode.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/metro/me3600x_3800x/trash/swethchl.html

QUESTION 5
How can shared services in an MPLS Layer 3 VPN provide Internet access to the Customers of a central service
provider?
A. Static routes on CE routers allow route leakage from a PE global routing table.
B. The CE router can establish a BGP peering to a PE router and use the PE device to reach the Internet.
C. The customer VRF uses route targets to import and export routes to and from a shared services VRF.
D. Route distinguishers are used to identify the routes that CEs can use to reach the Internet.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/service-providers-documents/providing-internet-access-for-mpls-l3-vpns/tap/3109924

QUESTION 6
How much must the MTU be increased when configuring the 802.1q VLAN tag?
A. 2 bytes
B. 4 bytes
C. 8 bytes
D. 12 bytes
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/8021q/17056-741-4.html

QUESTION 7
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Refer to the exhibit. On R1, which output does the show isis neighborscommand generate? » Read more about: Cisco 350-501 Dumps Practice Exam Questions – 2020 350-501 Latest Dumps »

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following states that a user should never be given more privileges than are required to carry out a task?

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QUESTION 1
Which two Cisco Unified Communications Manager IM and Presence modules are checked by the system
troubleshooter? (Choose two.)
A. CTI Manager
B. XCP
C. TFTP
D. Presence Engine
E. Internal Database
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
While attempting to enable the SIP publish trunk in Cisco Unified Presence, it is observed that there is no trunk that is
displayed in the drop-down list. Which previous configuration step should be verified?
A. Verify that the trunk has the correct IP address.
B. Verify that the trunk has been enabled for SIP Notify.
C. Verify that the Cisco Messaging Interface service has been started.
D. Verify that the trunk was selected in the Cisco CallManager service parameters.
E. Verify that the CUCM service was restarted after configuration.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which tool do you use to back up the entire Cisco Unity database and restore it as a whole to a new server?
A. Backup and Restore Utility
B. Consolidated Object Backup and Restore Application Suite briefcase mode
C. COBRAS hot mode
D. Cisco Unity Disaster Recovery Tools
E. Cisco Config File Manager
F. Cisco Automated Backup
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which file format is supported for creating users in bulk in Cisco Unity Connection?
A. .xlsm
B. .xlsx
C. .csv
D. .txt
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
When configuring an IM and Presence server on the Expressway-C or VCS-C, which role must the user have for
connecting to the IM and Presence server?
A. Standard CTI Enabled
B. Standard Serviceability Administration
C. Standard AXL API Access
D. Standard CCM Admin Users
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
An engineer has completed Cisco TMS setup. Which must be set up in Cisco TMS conference call routing for
scheduling purposes?
A. IP DNS
B. IP port
C. IP zones
D. IP DHCP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
What are two requirements for video greetings in Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Media Sense 10.0(1) or later
B. Cisco Expressway products
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Release 8.5(1) or later
D. Cisco Unity Connection 8.5(1)
E. SCCP endpoints such as 79XX
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
When you integrate Cisco Unified Communications Manager and Cisco Unity Connection, which three important
parameters must you configure in Unified Communications Manager? (Choose three.)
A. route list
B. Session Initiation Protocol trunk security profile
C. Session Initiation Protocol route pattern
D. route pattern
E. SIP trunk
F. device profile
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 9
In order for Cisco Unified Presence to show the presence status of an IP phone, which two configuration steps must be
completed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server? (Choose two.)
A. Check the Allow Presence Status check box.
B. Associate the end device with the user.
C. Allow the SIP publish trunk to forward presence status messages.
D. Associate the directory number with the user.
E. Enable Cisco Unified Personal Communicator Status flag.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
When using Cisco Unity Connection, which call handler type offers different call actions based on the digits that are
selected?
A. digit analysis
B. system
C. directory
D. interview
E. call management
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
When an Emergency Alternate Greeting (EAG) is activated, which two of the following statements describe how the
EAG is accessed? (Choose two.)
A. If it is active, the EAG is played before the welcome greeting of the system auto- attendant and the AtlGreeting.wav
file is appended to the beginning of the welcome greeting.
B. If it is active, the EAG is played before the welcome greeting of the system auto- attendant and a Boolean variable of
“greeting active” is returned as “true.”
C. If the EAG was recorded through the TUI and the EAG is active, the EAG overwrites the existing welcome greeting
and the EAG is played until it is deactivated.
D. If the EAG is included in custom auto-attendant scripts, a call to a subflow to checkaltgreet.aef must be inserted in
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greeting and changes its name to WelcomeGreeting.old until the administrator deactivates the EAG and renames the
existing welcome greeting.
Correct Answer: BD

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Refer to the exhibit. A person calls in and starts leaving a voicemail at 12:59:45 AM on a Saturday. What happens to
that call to voicemail at 1:00:00 AM?
A. The call disconnects
B. The call continues recording voicemail as usual
C. The system plays a prompt that says, “The business is closed now, please, call again later,” then immediately
disconnects the call.
D. The call is transferred to the general delivery mailbox.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
A user that is logged into Cisco Jabber reports that their availability status is incorrect for most of the contacts in their
contact list. Which four service traces give a correct indication of the issue? (Choose four.)
A. Cisco XCP Connection Manager
B. Cisco XCP Router
C. Cisco Presence Engine
D. Cisco SIP Proxy
E. Cisco Text Conferencing Manager
F. Cisco Client Profile Agent
G. Cisco XCP Web Connection Manager
Correct Answer: ABCE

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QUESTION 1

You are the Cloud Architect of a company, and are designing a solution on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure where you want

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the requirement on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. Create a custom image of your system drive each time you change the image.

B. Attach block volumes from different Availability Domains to compute instances in different Availability Domains for

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C. Design your system with redundant compute modes in different Availability Domains to support the failover

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D. Create backups of your block volumes that are associated with compute instances in different regions.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Compute/References/bestpracticescompute.htm

QUESTION 2

Which storage would you use if your big data workload requires shared access and an NFS based interface?

A. File Storage

B. Storage Software Cloud Appliance

C. Object Storage

D. Archive Storage

E. Block Volume

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/File/Concepts/filestorageoverview.htm

QUESTION 3

Which two resources reside exclusively in a single availability domain?

A. compute instance

B. block volume

C. object storage

D. groups

E. virtual cloud network

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4

Which three are capabilities of the dbaascli utility? (Choose three.)

A. Patching the primary database deployment

B. Open port 1521 in the VCN to allow for traffic to the listener

C. Start and open the database instance

D. Switchover and failover in an Oracle Guard configuration

E. Clone a DB

Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 5

Which two identity providers can your administrator federate with Oracle Cloud Infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Active Directory

B. Oracle Identity Cloud Services

C. AWS Directory Services

D. Google Directory Federation Services

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Identity/Concepts/federation.htm

QUESTION 6

Which statement is true regarding Autonomous Transaction Processing (ATP)?

A. A database name cannot be used concurrently for both an Autonomous Data Warehouse (ADW) and an ATP

database

B. After terminating a database, the database name is available for immediate reuse

C. A maximum of 8 cores can be enabled for an ATP database

D. A maximum of 2 TB of storage can be enabled for an ATP database

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/iaas/Content/Database/Tasks/adwcreating.htm (See note)

QUESTION 7

Which two resources are available by default when your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure tenancy is provisioned? (Choose

two.)

A. an NVMe SSD boot disk for each instance, whose size is determined by the image and shape of the instance

B. a range of public IP addresses that are reserved for your tenancy

C. a set of images, where each image is a template of a virtual hard drive that consists of the OS and installed software

and applications

D. a variety of shapes, where each shape determines the number of CPUs and memory allocated to an instance.

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8

Which two statements are true about an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Virtual Cloud Network (VCN)? (Choose two.)

A. A VCN can reside in multiple Oracle Cloud Infrastructure regions and Availability Domains.

B. A VCN covers a single contiguous IPv4 CIDR block of your choice.

C. An allowable VCN size range is: /16 to /30.

D. A VCN creates the dynamic routing gateway by default.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 9

Which two statements are true about encryption on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)? (Choose two.)

A. By default, Object Storage and Block Storage are encrypted at rest.

B. A customer is responsible for data encryption in all services of OCI.

C. By default, DBCS offers an encrypted database.

D. By default, NVMe drives are encrypted but the block volume service is not.

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://cloud.oracle.com/storage/object-storage/features

QUESTION 10

You want an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) compute instance in your compartment to make API calls to other

services within OCI without storing credentials in a configuration file. What do you need to do?

A. Create a dynamic group with appropriate matching rules to include the instance, and reference this group in your IAM

policy statement

B. Instances cannot access services outside their compartment

C. VM instances are treated as users. Create a user, assign the user to that VM instance, and reference the instance in

your Identity and Access Management (IAM) policy statement

D. By default, all VM instances are created with an instance principal. Reference this instance principal in your IAM

policy statement

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://medium.com/@tigerbabu/oracle-cloud-infrastructure-associate-architect-notes-4495b25b24a4

QUESTION 11

In which two ways does Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) file storage (FSS) differ from OCI object storage and block

volume services?

A. Block volume service is NVMe based, while FSS is not

B. Object storage and block volume services offer default encryption, but FSS does not

C. A file system is created within an availability domain, whereas object storage buckets exist at the region level

D. FSS uses the network file system (NFS) protocol, whereas block volume uses iSCSI

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: http://storageconference.us/2018/Presentations/Beauvais.pdf

QUESTION 12

Your company has decided to move a few applications to Oracle Cloud and you have been asked to design it for both

High Availability (HA) and Disaster Recovery (DR).

Which two should you consider while designing your Oracle Cloud Infrastructure architecture? (Choose two.)

A. Region

B. Instance Shape

C. Compartments

D. Availability Domain

Correct Answer: AD

Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/cloud-infrastructure/migration-and-disaster-recovery-in-the-oracle-cloud-with-rackware

QUESTION 13

What is the maximum CIDR range that can be assigned when configuring a Virtual Cloud Network?

A. /16

B. /26

C. /24

D. /8

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cloud.oracle.com/en_US/bare-metal-network/vcn/faq

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