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Pass4itsure Latest and Most Accurate Microsoft 70-243 Dumps Exam Q&As:
QUESTION 35
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You need to receive an email message every day that lists all non-compliant clients. What should you do?
A. Create an alert subscription.
B. Configure a Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) report.
C. Configure an in-console alert.
D. Create a ConfigMgr query.
70-243 exam Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 36
Your network contains a System center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. The environment contains a reporting services point. A group of users is responsible for creating custom reports. The custom reports will be published. You need to identify which tools can be used to create and publish custom reports to Microsoft SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS). Which tools should you identify? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Report Builder
B. Microsoft SQL Server Business Intelligence Development Studio
C. Microsoft Access 2010
D. Reporting Services Configuration Manager
E. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 37
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You create a report named Report1. Report1 is used by multiple users. Users report that it takes too long to load Report1. You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to load Report1. What should you do?
A. Enable caching for the report.
B. Decrease the Size of the ReportServer database.
C. Decrease the session timeout value for the Reports website.
D. Increase the size of the ReportServerTempDB database.
70-243 dumps Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 38
Your network contains a System center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. You are creating a configuration item that contains application settings for Microsoft Office 2010. You need to detect whether Office 2010 is installed before validating the configuration item. What should you do?
A. Create a report to display all installed software.
B. Enable Use a custom script to detect this application.
C. Create a direct membership collection.
D. Create an automatic deployment rule.
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 39
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment. Two weeks ago, you deployed a Windows Installer package named App1. You need to remediate a registry value that applies only to the client computers that have App1 installed. The solution must minimize network traffic. What should you do?
A. Modify the App1 Windows Installer package to contain the registry setting, and then create a new application for Appl.
B. Modify the App1 Windows Installer package to contain the registry setting, and then configure the existing application for App1 to use the new Windows Installer package.
C. Create an application-based configuration item, configure a rule for an existential type, and then import the registry setting from a client computer that has App1 installed.
D. Create an application-based configuration item, configure the detection method to use the Windows Installer product code of App1, and then import the registry setting from a client computer that has App1 installed.
70-243 pdf Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 40
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to monitor compliance. The company has a configuration baseline for each server that has the Web Server (IIS) server rote installed. A new corporate policy specifies that the maximum TCP window size for all of the Web servers must be 131,072 bytes. You discover that the TCP window size is set in the following registry entry: HKEY_LOCAL_ MACHINE\System\CurrentControlSet\Services\HTTP\Parameters\MaxBytesPerSend You need to generate an error message for all of the Web servers that do NOT comply with the corporate policy. What should you do?
A. Add a new configuration item that has a registry value setting type to the configuration baseline.
B. Create a query-based collection that contains all of the Web servers, and then initiate an inventory collection.
C. Create a query that returns a list of all the Web servers, and then search the query results for the registry value.
D. Add a new configuration item that has an Internet Information Services (IIS) metabase setting type to the configuration baseline.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 41
Your company has a production network and a test network. Both networks have System Center 2012 Configuration Manager deployed. You create the following objects on the test network: A configuration item named WebCI A configuration baseline named WebBaseline that contains WebCI A collection named WebServers that contains all of the Web servers on the test network. You export the configuration baseline to Baseline.cab. You open the Configuration Manager console, you click Assets and Compliance, and then you expand Compliance Settings. You need to apply the configuration baseline to the Web servers on the production network. What should you do next? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Right-click WebBaseline, select Categorize, and then select Server.
B. Right-click Configuration Baselines, and then select Import Configuration Data
C. Right-click WebCI, select Export, and then specify Baseline.cab as the export file.
D. Right-click WebBaseline, and then select Properties. In the Deployments tab, type WebServers in the Filter… box.
E. Right-click WebBaseline, select Deploy, and then select the WebServers collection.
70-243 vce Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION NO: 42
Which Aruba controllers are able to provide IEEE 802.3af POE? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 6000
Answer: B,C,D
QUESTION NO: 43
Which of the following controllers has an integrated single radio AP?
A. 3200
B. 620
C. 650
D. 651
70-243 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 44
What is the maximum number of campus APs supported by a 620 controller?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 16
D. 24
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 45
Which access point models support concurrent operations in both the “b/g” band as well as the “a” band? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP2
B. AP-120
C. AP-105
D. AP-125
E. AP-135
70-243 dumps Answer: C,D,E
QUESTION NO: 46
Which of the following APs do not support dual radio operations? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. RAP – 5
B. AP 125
C. AP 120
D. AP 124
Answer: A,C
QUESTION NO: 47
Which of the following APs support remote AP operation?
A. AP 105
B. AP 125
C. RAP2
D. All of the above
70-243 pdf Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 48
An Aruba based network has a Master and three local controllers. No APs terminate on the Master controller. IDS is desired, so the administrator wants to install the “RFProtect license.” On which controller should the license be installed?
A. master controller since it performs the IDS analysis
B. the local controllers since the APs terminate there
C. all of the controllers
D. this isn’t the correct license for this purpose
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 49
What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller’s MAC address and the feature description
B. controller’s MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller’s Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller’s Serial Number and the certificate number
70-243 vce Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 50
What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?
A. Number of APs
B. Limit One per controller
C. Number of users
D. Number of local controllers
Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 51
Which of the following licenses are consumed by RAP?
A. AP license
B. PEF-NG license
C. PEF-V license
D. No license required
70-243 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 52
The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?
A. delete license
B. write erase
C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated
D. write erase all
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 53
Which statement is true about the Content Security License?
A. Applied to the master controller
B. Applied to all the controllers in the network
C. It is based on number of users
D. It is based on number of APs
70-243 dumps Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 54 What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy?
A. Backup master only requires the AP license
B. License limits should be the same on primary master and backup Master
C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration
D. Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 55
Which may be applied directly to an interface? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Access List (ACL)
B. Firewall Policy
C. Roles
D. RF Plan Map
70-243 pdf Answer: A,B
QUESTION NO: 56
What new firewall action was added specifically for use with Aruba’s Content Security Service? VisualRF supports import of floor plans from:
A. dst-nat
B. dual-nat
C. route dst-nat
D. redirect to tunnel
Answer: C
QUESTION NO: 57
When creating a firewall policy, which of the following parameters are required? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Destination
B. Service
C. Source
D. Log
E. Action
70-243 vce Answer: A,B,C,E
QUESTION NO: 58
In all unmodified default AAA profiles, in which default initial role is the user placed?
A. trusted-ap
B. guest
C. pre-guest
D. logon
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 59
When are the system-defined default roles added to the configuration on the controller?
A. when the controller is first booted
B. when an RF Proctect license is added to the controller
C. when created manually
D. when a PEF-NG license is added to the controller
70-243 exam Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 60
When a user first associates to the WLAN, what role are they given?
A. the guest role
B. the stateful role
C. the initial role in the server group profile
D. the initial role in the AAA profile
Answer: D
QUESTION NO: 61
Which of the following could be used to set a user’s post-authentication role or VLAN association? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. AAA default role for authentication method
B. Server Derivation Rule
C. Vendor Specific Attributes
D. AP Derivation Rule
70-243 dumps Answer: B,C
QUESTION NO: 62
Which describe “roles” as used on Aruba Mobility Controllers? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. Roles are assigned to users.
B. Roles are applied to interfaces.
C. Policies are built from roles.
D. A user can belong to only one role at a time.
Answer: A,D
QUESTION NO: 63
Which netdestination aliases are built into the controller? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. mswitch
B. any
C. user
D. guest
70-243 pdf Answer: A,B,C
QUESTION NO: 64
What are aliases used for?
A. improve performance
B. simplify the configuration process
C. tie IP addresses to ports
D. assign rules to policies
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 65
Which of the following statements allows a user to initiate an HTTP session to other devices?
A. any alias internal-nets svc-dns permit
B. user any svc-http permit
C. user user svc-http permit
D. any any svc-http permit
70-243 vce Answer: B,D
QUESTION NO: 66
The Aruba Policy Enforcement Firewall (PEF) module supports destination network address translation (dst-nat). Which is a common use of this statement in an Aruba configuration?
A. source the IP addresses of users to specific IP address
B. redirect HTTP sessions to Captive Portal
C. redirect Access Points to another Aruba controller
D. provide a telnet connection to the controller
Answer: B
QUESTION NO: 67
The Aruba Policy Enforcement Firewall (PEF) module supports source network address translation (src-nat). Which is a common use of this statement in an Aruba configuration?
A. provide a single source IP address for users in a role
B. redirect Captive Portal HTTP sessions
C. redirect Access Points to another Aruba controller
D. provide IP addresses to clients
70-243 exam Answer: A
QUESTION NO: 68
The network administrator wishes to terminate the VPN encryption on the Aruba controller. When writing a firewall rule to accomplish the task of automatically moving the VPN traffic for the wireless clients from a third party VPN concentrator to an Aruba controller, which action needs to be configured in the rule?
A. redirect to ESI group
B. source NAT
C. destination NAT
D. redirect to tunnel
Answer: C
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